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Session Details
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| Guest Name |
Sheikh Muhammad Ali Al-Hanooti
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| Profession |
Mufti
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| Subject |
Fatwa
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| Date |
Tuesday,Jun 20 ,2000
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Time |
Makkah
From...
22:00...To...
00:00
GMT
From... 19:00...To...21:00
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| Name |
Muslimah
- United States
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| Profession |
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| Question |
We are all equal in the sight of Allah (SWT) and the only thing which sets us apart is our deeds. However, I have trouble with some of the hadiths and certain verses of the Qur'an and how they fit into this whole idea of equality between men and women. There is one hadith in particular which confuses me, and it is the hadith which says, paraphrased: "There are more women in hell because they were ungrateful to their husbands. Women are less intelligent than men because two women witnesses are required for one man witness. Women are more deficinet in religion because they can not fast or pray during their menses." Now, to me, this hadith seems to show an inequality. I am a university student, and I have to say that I have not seen an overwhelming proof that men are more intelligent than women. I have noticed that sometimes men do better in math related subjects, but women do equally better in liberal arts and subjects requiring analysis. In addition, I find that there are many women who excel in the mathematics departments as well. Also, how can a woman be more deficient in religion due to her menses, if that is something she can not control? It is a natural thing women have to contend with, so how can it be that they are seen as having "less" religion than men? Also, the verse in the Qur'an allowing that a woman can be beaten troubles me. I thought a Muslim is never allowed to hurt another Muslim, unless he/she is hurt by that person. In addition, if beating (thought the last resort) is how a man can deal with an "unruly" wife, how can a woman deal with a man who has ill-conduct? And, what does it mean "ill-conduct"? How far should a wife obey her husband? Can she disagree with him, or does she have to say "yes sir" to everything? In addition, there is a Quranic verse in which Allah (SWT) is reprimanding the pagans for saying that He (SWT) has daughters. But, in so doing, He says, paraphrased:" How can he have them as daughters, who can not give clear testimony and who busy themselves with trinkets". Can you explain that verse please? I'm just confused on these points, and i'd really appreciate your input! jazakallahu khair, and sorry if this question was a bit long.
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| Answer |
1. Our source of knowledge is Allah (SWT). Reason is not a source, but is a tool to understand what Allah revealed to us through his messanger (SAAWS). If you believe in this data, then your argument would be in the authenticity of the content of a Hadith.
2. The Quran is always fully articulate in vocabulary and style. Everything in the Quran is the exact saying of Allah. The Hadith is different in punctuality of language, because some Hadiths one related by the companions of the Prophet (SAAWS), they could have a different synonym or a different additional or omited conjuction or article. This is what is called in the Hadith terminology "narration by meaning".
3. The Hadith you referred to is authentic, the Prophet (SAAWS) talks about women not as a gender or a race or ethnic. He talks about sinful people who deserve what they will have of destiny. If a man does the same, he will have the same Hell. This is the only way you can interpret the Hadith.
4. The Prophet (SAAWS) has explained what he says of shortage of deen which is different from your interpretation or translation of deen. He says, you are less commended to practice the deen, because of menstruation. When he talks about lack of intellect, he does not talk about potential of brain or capacity of talent or skill. A woman is overloaded by being a mother or a babysitter or pregnant. All these carriers are around the clock, because of what she is, she is always likely to forget more than a man who is devoted to one career only. Allah is merciful, he forgives her and makes it easy for her when she is not fully responsible to give a full testimony as a witness. Nothing of that is defaming a woman, there is not a law that discriminates a woman to put her down.
5. Beating a wife is not the first step and remedy, but the last step, I am certain you can hardly find one case in a million of wives who have dispute with husbands where beating is an answer. All these cases of beating a wife are unislamic, but we cannot deny that there are very exceptional cases where a woman wants to be beaten as we answered a question of a wife who ask her husband to beat her sometimes when she is mistaken.
6. Your opinion is reactionary and of some misunderstanding, but I appreciate your open-minded debate. May Allah (SWT) help us to follow his deen.
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| Name |
Aiman
- United States
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| Profession |
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| Question |
Does a wife have to have something wrong in order for the husband to be able to marry another woman (2nd wife)?. Also, when a wife asks her husband for a divorce, does she retain the right to receive the "Muhakhar"?.
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| Answer |
Getting married to another wife is lawful for a man. Halal does not mean any encouragement to be done or taken. One should consider the consequences of any direction he takes. You can hardly think of a second marriage added to the first wife to be succesful and helpful in the United States. A man should consider thoroughly why he is adding another wife to his life.
Talaq is in the hand of the man. A woman does not have the right to decide Talaq. She can seek for it through certain arrangements, but she is always in need of the approval of the husband or a judgment by the Muslim Court.
If Talaq decided by the man, the wife deserves the postponed dower.
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| Name |
ANEESA
- Singapore
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| Question |
Assallammu alaikum. Please advise me on the ruling of girls using perfumes. Is it allow to use perfumes among girls as I am in the girls madressah. Perfumes contain alcohol and non alcohol. Can we do our prayer with the perfume on? I know it is not allow if I were to go out but what if I am in the madressah? Please advise Jazakaullah
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| Answer |
You can wear perfume if you are in a women gathering. Alcoholic perfume is Halal. You can make Salat wearing it too.
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| Name |
Suhaib
- United Kingdom
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| Profession |
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| Question |
We have a da'wah campaign idea for our university here in London. We want to have a "Be Muslim for a Day" event, where we will talk to people about the virtues of Islam such as modesty, truthfulness, not drinking alcohol, dressing modestly, and other such things, of both spiritual and material significance. Then we would invite people to practice these things for one day. Also, we would give them halal food, and let them watch us pray in a large hall. Is this allowed? Especially the title. We will not get them to say the shahadah, but want them to see what a Muslim's life is like. Please let me know of any things we should watch out for.
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| Answer |
Your acitivity as planned is correct. There is nothing wrong with what you plan to do.
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| Name |
Abdullah
- United States
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| Profession |
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| Question |
Can you explain the hadith in Sahih Bukhari that says:
Volume 1, Book 6, Number 301:
Narrated Abu Said Al-Khudri:
Once Allah's Apostle went out to the Musalla (to offer the prayer) or 'Id-al-Adha or Al-Fitr prayer. Then he passed by the women and said, "O women! Give alms, as I have seen that the majority of the dwellers of Hell-fire were you (women)." They asked, "Why is it so, O Allah's Apostle ?" He replied, "You curse frequently and are ungrateful to your husbands. I have not seen anyone more deficient in intelligence and religion than you. A cautious sensible man could be led astray by some of you." The women asked, "O Allah's Apostle! What is deficient in our intelligence and religion?" He said, "Is not the evidence of two women equal to the witness of one man?" They replied in the affirmative. He said, "This is the deficiency in her intelligence. Isn't it true that a woman can neither pray nor fast during her menses?" The women replied in the affirmative. He said, "This is the deficiency in her religion."
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| Answer |
I have just answered the question through my Arabic original reading and studies of the Haidth. Translation is not capable to convey the correct spirit of the Hadith.
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| Name |
samina
- Pakistan
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| Profession |
student
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| Question |
Aslam-o alikum
I've asked you this question before but I wasn't satisfied. It is about the woman taking the right of divorce. You said that many schools have agreed upon it,can you inform me if it is in writing somewhere is it mentioned in the holy book. Actually I'll be getting married soon & my husband to be is reluctant to give me this right saying that it is not according to shariah he says that if does not have to give me the right. Please give me a detail regarding this issue.I shall be thankful to you.
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| Answer |
We answered this question before saying that, a husband has the right to give his wife the power of attorney to divorce herself from him anytime she wills. This is the answer of the majority of schools. There is a daleel that it is a condition stipulated in the marriage contract and the Prophet (SAAW) honored in a Hadith the conditions of marriage and he said that those conditions are of the most honorable ones. The only condition that will be invalid, if it contradicts any other law. Some Scholars disagree with that saying the right of Talaq is totally man's business. Ibn Hazim is of that opinion.
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| Name |
Abdulwahhab
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| Question |
Is not being a professional a valid reason for a Wali to object to a marriage proposal?
Do the scholars recommend marrying someone that is from the same culture as yourself?
What disqualifies a father from being the Wali?
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| Answer |
A Wali is the father or any of the closest kins to the female. He should be muslim, practicing Islam and capable to make a good decision for her interest and welfare. He need not be a Scholar or a Professional. Qualifications of a good husband are what makes the marital life successful and valid. Deen is the most important qualification. Sustenance and compatibility are required for marriage.
To have both, the husband and wife of the same culture is not a very important condition. Sometimes we would consider that if it affects the communication or compatibility of the couples. If the Wali disqualifies the man without reasonable justification, the woman can get married without his approval. The Judge of a Muslim Court can validate marriage without his consent.
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| Name |
amina
- Australia
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| Profession |
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| Question |
I read that if the scarf comes between the forehead and ground during the prayer , sajda is invalid. I tried to uncover my forehead during prayer, but its very difficult because my hair become uncovered too . Please tell me what to do.
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| Answer |
No, it is not true that if the ccarf covers your forehead could ever invalidate your Salat. You can make sujud, covering or uncovering your forehead.
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| Name |
Abdul Karim
- United States
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| Profession |
Engineer
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| Question |
It is about Mixing (Ikhtilat).
I was asked many times, where is the ruling that during social visits ie friend to friend visit(despite that both families observe the Islamic dress and their talks) it is not allowed to have Ikhtilat. The only clear hadith speaks about "Khalwah" which is not taking place when people visit each other. And if I remember very well that it depends when you look at the other sex what is the intention. In the literature there are many points of view on this.
Can you help in shedding some light on this of what you know about shari'a , Maslahah and other considerations
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| Answer |
Dear Brother, we never say, these visits are Haram. We just draw the line for rules to put you on the safe side. Every action is usually bouned to a goal. If you have a good result for doing something, then you can prove it. We see in many instances the demirits are more merits of these mixed visits. There is a posibility of laughs, or jokes, or accidental gazes. The Quran says in Sura 33, Verse 32 "Then be not soft of speech, lest he in whose heart is a disease, aspire to you". This is a fundamental rule in Islam to govern every sort of behavior. When you have the option to be fully out of those liabilities or you could be liable to a sinful episode, which one will you choose?
You talk about intention, Allah is the only one who knows intention, so it cannot be our subject matter where as we talk about, what is the appearance and on the ground.
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| Name |
Khaled
- Canada
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| Profession |
Engineer
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| Question |
I applied for VISA card to one of the banks (in Saudi Arabia) that deals with interest rate (Riba). The application requirements were very flexible at that bank. When I filled in the application there were optional questions that were for a competition (with prizes) the bank has allocated for whoever applies for its VISA cards. The questions were very simple, so I answered SOME of the competition questions for ENTERTAINMENT only. When I submitted my application to the bank employee, he found my answers incomplete so he voluntarily answered the remaining questions for me without I ask him to do that. There is a point that I want to confirm here which is that I DID NOT apply for VISA card to this bank for participating in the competition or winning the prizes it was making, my application to the bank was merely to get a VISA card. The VISA card is so important to me since I depend on it in my travel abroad to manage my affairs without carrying money which could endanger my life. In addition, the Visa card enables me perform other matters such as renting a car where renting a car abroad without a Credit card is impossible.
Anyhow, after I applied and got the card, the bank informed me that I won a valuable prize. I took the prize and sold it.
The question is " Is the money I got out of the prize Halal or Haram?" Can we consider it Halal and it came from the income where the bank does the Halal work (especially in Saudi Arabia) such as money exchange and money transfer..etc. or not?
And if the money was Haram then what should I do with it?
Please let me know the answer Jazakum Allah Khair.
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Your prize is Halal if you do not want it, send it to us!
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| Name |
maleeha
- Japan
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when alcohol touches clothes ,it becomes napaak and we have to wash it then how can we use perfumes containing alcohol.when selling alcohol is haram then how it can be applied on clothes . please help me clarify this.
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| Answer |
Alcohol is Haram to drink, but it is not impure if one touches it or it spills on your body or clothes. The opinion of impurity is not strong enough for many schools who say Alcohol is pure.
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| Name |
fardos
- Canada
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| Question |
can a woman give charity from her husband money without his knowledge. will she be rewarded.
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Yes, she can. As Hind the mother of Muawiyah asked the Prophet (SAAWS) if she could take any of Abu Sofians' money for spending for her family or giving the poor. The Prophet (SAAWS) said, she will be rewarded for doing that. She should not exceed the limit of what she can take and spend.
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| Name |
الاء
- Saudi Arabia
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| Profession |
طالبة
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| Question |
ما حكم شد تجاعيد الوجه باستخدهم العمليات الجراحيةو باستخدام الليزربحيث يغير شكل امرأة في سن 60الى سن30
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Question: What is the Islamic ruling concerning plastic surgery?
Answer: It is unlawful as it is for changing your features, but if these operations are needed for medical reasons, they are lawful.
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| Name |
ahmed
- United States
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| Profession |
doctor
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| Question |
Assalamu Alaikum:
A 16 year old muslim boy was diagnosed with a very bad cancer that had spread to his lungs, kidneys and bones. His doctors advised his parents to avoid life support measures including the breathing machine if his condition gets critical because that will prolong his suffering before he dies. What do you think about the doctors advice?
Jazakum Allahu khairan.
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You better consult a Muslim Specialist if available. In general the patient or his guardians have the authority or make the decision. If the machines are paid by other sources than the family, you can wait, if not you have the right to decide. It is not haram to stop machines, if you decide.
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